The Complete FAA Instrument Rating Checkride Guide

What is the FAA Instrument Rating checkride?

The instrument rating checkride is a practical test administered by an FAA Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE) or FAA Aviation Safety Inspector that certifies your ability to operate as pilot in command under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR). Passing it adds an instrument rating to your pilot certificate, authorizing you to fly in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) and file IFR flight plans.

The checkride has two sequential parts: an oral examination and a flight test. The DPE evaluates both against the FAA Instrument Rating Airman Certification Standards (FAA-S-ACS-8C), which defines the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements you must demonstrate across 8 Areas of Operation. Unlike the private pilot checkride, the instrument rating test demands a higher tolerance for precision — tolerances for altitude, airspeed, and heading are tighter, and the DPE expects you to operate procedures systematically under simulated instrument conditions.

The instrument rating is widely considered the most technically demanding rating a pilot earns early in their career. It requires not just procedural knowledge, but genuine aeronautical decision-making: reading weather, managing ATC clearances, interpreting approach plates, and flying accurately while managing the cockpit and communicating with controllers. The checkride tests all of it.

How the checkride is scheduled and administered

You schedule your instrument rating checkride through a Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE). DPEs are certificated pilots authorized by the FAA to administer practical tests on the FAA's behalf. You can locate DPEs through the FAA's Airmen Inquiry system or through your CFII, who will typically know the active examiners in the region.

Before the checkride, your DPE will send you an applicant information packet or discuss logistics: what aircraft you'll use, which airports the flight scenario will involve, what weather packages to prepare, and how they prefer to receive payment. You will also complete and submit your application through IACRA (Integrated Airman Certification and Rating Application) prior to test day. The DPE reviews your IACRA application, logbook, written test result, and CFII endorsements before the oral begins.

Most checkrides are conducted at the DPE's home airport, though some examiners are willing to travel or meet at a mutually convenient airport. Checkride fees are set by the individual DPE — there is no FAA-set fee schedule. As of 2026, instrument rating checkride fees commonly range from $600 to $1,000, but always confirm directly with your examiner.

Who is eligible for the instrument rating?

To be eligible for the instrument rating practical test, you must meet the aeronautical experience and certification requirements of 14 CFR 61.65.

Certification: You must hold at least a private pilot certificate, or be concurrently applying for one, with an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift rating as appropriate for the instrument rating sought.

Knowledge: You must pass the Instrument Rating Aeronautical Knowledge Test (the "written") and receive a ground training endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying you are prepared for the practical test.

Aeronautical experience (for the airplane instrument rating):

• 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC, with at least 10 hours in airplanes
• 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the required areas of operation, of which:
  • At least 15 hours must be with an authorized instrument flight instructor (CFII) in airplanes
  • At least 3 hours must be with a CFII within the 2 calendar months immediately before the practical test
  • At least 1 IFR cross-country flight under the direction of a CFII, with a flight plan filed, at least 250 nm total distance along airways, instrument approaches at each airport, and 3 different kinds of approaches using navigation systems

Simulator credit: Up to 30 hours of the 40-hour instrument requirement may be in a full flight simulator or flight training device qualifying under 14 CFR Part 142. If the device does not meet Part 142, the limit is 20 hours. No more than 10 hours may be in a Basic Aviation Training Device (BATD), or 20 hours in an Advanced Aviation Training Device (AATD).

CFII endorsement: You must hold a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying you are ready to take the practical test.

What does the checkride actually consist of?

The instrument rating checkride has two distinct phases administered on the same day, typically at an airport convenient for the proposed flight scenario.

The oral examination covers knowledge and risk management from ACS Areas I through III — Preflight Preparation, Preflight Procedures, and ATC Clearances and Procedures. The DPE will construct a scenario around a real or hypothetical IFR flight: a departure airport, a destination, weather conditions, and an aircraft. You will be expected to file a notional flight plan, analyze weather products, brief approaches, interpret NOTAMs, demonstrate knowledge of regulations, and explain how you would manage risks and contingencies throughout the flight.

The flight test covers ACS Areas IV through VIII — Flight by Reference to Instruments, Navigation Systems, Instrument Approach Procedures, Emergency Operations, and Postflight Procedures. You will fly at least one non-precision approach, at least one precision approach, and one approach using a different navigation system. The DPE will also evaluate instrument flying accuracy, holding procedures, and partial-panel operations.

The two phases are not strictly separated — a DPE may continue asking knowledge questions during the flight portion, particularly around the approach environment, weather interpretation, or in-flight decision-making. You should expect the evaluation to be continuous from the moment you arrive until the DPE signs your temporary airman certificate.

How is the oral exam structured?

The oral exam is structured as a DPE-led scenario, not a Q&A quiz. You typically should expect 2–3 hours of examination time covering the knowledge and risk management elements across FAA-S-ACS-8C Areas I (Preflight Preparation), II (Preflight Procedures), and III (ATC Clearances and Procedures).

What the DPE builds the oral around:

The DPE will give you a departure airport, a destination, current and forecast weather, and an aircraft. From there, the examination unfolds organically:

• Pilot qualifications and recency of experience — Are you current per 14 CFR 61.57(c)? What are your personal minimums? What are the privileges and limitations of your instrument rating?
• Weather interpretation — Walk through a METAR, TAF, PIREPs, GFA, winds aloft, and AIRMETs/SIGMETs. The DPE wants to see that you can interpret products, assess hazards, and make a go/no-go decision with a rationale grounded in the weather data, not gut feel.
• IFR flight planning — Route selection, alternate airport requirements under 14 CFR 91.169, fuel reserve requirements, NOTAM review, and TFRs.
• Approach briefings — Brief an approach plate cold, from scratch, in front of the DPE. Know the minimums for your aircraft category, the missed approach procedure, the field environment, and what happens if you lose communications.
• Regulations — 14 CFR Parts 61 and 91 topics including required equipment, ATC communications procedures, IFR alternate requirements, and lost communications procedures.

The DPE is not trying to stump you with obscure trivia. They are verifying that you think like an instrument pilot — methodically, with regulatory grounding, and with genuine awareness of where the risks are.

How DPEs typically structure the scenario

Most DPEs establish the scenario in the first 10 minutes: they hand you a weather package, name a departure and destination airport, and tell you what aircraft you will fly. From that point, the examination is conversational. A well-prepared candidate drives the discussion by volunteering information before the DPE has to ask — briefing the weather without being prompted, noting the alternate requirement before the DPE asks whether one is required, and preemptively identifying the risks in the scenario.

DPEs are trained to probe the boundary of your knowledge. If you answer a question confidently and correctly, they will push deeper: "What would you do if your vacuum system failed en route?" or "You said you'd file this airport as your alternate — what if the forecast changes to below alternate minimums while you're airborne?" This is intentional. A DPE who only asked easy questions could not distinguish a prepared candidate from a lucky one. Expect follow-up, and do not interpret a follow-up question as a sign that your previous answer was wrong.

What the DPE wants to hear in your answers

Every answer benefits from the same structure: state the regulatory rule first, then apply it to the scenario. "Under 14 CFR 91.169, if the weather at my destination is forecast to be below 2,000-foot ceiling or 3 miles visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after my estimated time of arrival, I must file an alternate. In this scenario, the TAF shows a 1,500-foot overcast starting at 18Z, which is within my ETA window, so an alternate is required." That answer is testable, traceable, and shows you think in terms of the regulatory framework — which is exactly what a DPE is trained to evaluate against the ACS Knowledge elements.

How is the flight test structured?

The flight test covers ACS Areas IV through VIII and evaluates your ability to fly the aircraft precisely by reference to instruments while managing navigation, communications, and procedures.

Minimums task by task: Altitude ±100 feet during approaches, ±200 feet in cruise. Airspeed ±10 knots. Heading ±10 degrees. These are the published ACS tolerances — the DPE holds you to them.

Approach sequence: The DPE will assign approaches based on what's published at the airports on the route. You should expect at least: one ILS (or equivalent LPV), one non-precision approach (LNAV or VOR), and approaches using at least 2 different navigation systems. The DPE may also require a circling approach or a contact approach depending on weather and airport layout.

Partial panel: The DPE will cover or fail the attitude indicator and directional gyro to evaluate whether you can maintain positive aircraft control and fly a safe approach using only the turn coordinator, altimeter, airspeed indicator, and VSI.

Holds: Expect at least one published or assigned holding pattern. The DPE evaluates your entry procedure, timing, wind correction, and whether you remain within protected airspace.

How the flight test unfolds in practice

The flight test is continuous — there is no pause between tasks, and the DPE will often layer tasks simultaneously. You might be asked to fly direct to a fix, set up an approach, brief the missed approach procedure, and maintain altitude within ACS tolerances, all while talking to ATC. This is intentional: the ACS evaluates not just whether you can perform each task, but whether you can manage the full instrument environment as PIC.

Communicate openly with the DPE during the flight. If ATC gives a clearance that conflicts with the checkride scenario, say so clearly: "DPE, I'm showing a clearance conflict — I'd normally query ATC, how would you like me to handle this?" DPEs generally appreciate candidates who demonstrate good aeronautical decision-making out loud. Silence during abnormal situations reads as confusion.

Unusual attitude recoveries are tested by the DPE inducing an unusual attitude — typically by having you close your eyes or look away while they maneuver the aircraft — and then telling you to recover. Recovery procedure under the ACS: immediately check turn coordinator (direction of turn) and altimeter/airspeed (pitch trend), then execute the appropriate recovery without reference to the covered instruments. Over-banking or pulling through a recovery is an immediate unsatisfactory.

What does the DPE evaluate against?

Every element of the instrument rating checkride is evaluated against the FAA Instrument Rating ACS (FAA-S-ACS-8C). The ACS uses a three-element framework for every task:

Knowledge (K): Cognitive understanding of a concept, regulation, procedure, or system. Tested primarily in the oral. Example: "Describe the requirements for an IFR alternate airport under 14 CFR 91.169."

Risk Management (R): Identification and mitigation of risks associated with a task. Tested in both oral and flight. Example: "What risks do you accept if you depart below IFR alternate minimums?"

Skill (S): Physical demonstration during the flight test. Example: "Track the localizer to DA, execute the missed approach procedure, and enter the published missed approach hold."

The DPE cannot pass you if you are unsatisfactory in any single Knowledge, Risk, or Skill element. This means that a single missed regulation, a missed risk identification, or a single failed maneuver can result in a Notice of Disapproval. The ACS is not a curve — it is a minimum competency standard.

What "unsatisfactory" actually means under the ACS

An unsatisfactory determination is not arbitrary — it is tied to specific element codes within the ACS. When a DPE issues a Notice of Disapproval, they document the specific area, task, and element code where you were unsatisfactory. For example, a failure to correctly identify the requirements for an IFR alternate airport would be documented as unsatisfactory on a specific Knowledge element within Area I, Task C (Cross-Country Flight Planning).

This specificity matters for your retest: you only retest on tasks where you were unsatisfactory. A candidate who passed the oral but failed the localizer tracking on the flight test does not re-sit the entire checkride — they demonstrate only the deficient tasks. Understanding the ACS structure also helps you focus study effort. Rather than reviewing everything equally, you can identify the elements that are most commonly cited on disapprovals and weight your preparation accordingly.

The FAA-S-ACS-8C is a public document. Download it and read it alongside your study materials. Every element the DPE can evaluate is listed. There are no hidden requirements.

The 8 Areas of Operation in FAA-S-ACS-8C are:

What are the most common reasons candidates fail?

DPEs consistently cite the same failure modes across instrument rating checkrides. These are not obscure edge cases — they are fundamental knowledge and skill gaps that surface under pressure.

• Alternate airport requirements — candidates cannot recite the 1-2-3 rule (per 14 CFR 91.169) or confuse alternate minimums with destination minimums.
• Approach briefings — skipping or rushing the full approach brief: missed approach procedure, minimums for aircraft category, inbound course, timing, field environment, and comm failure procedure.
• Partial panel — over-relying on the failed instruments, chasing the needle on the directional gyro after it's been covered, or failing to maintain altitude within ACS tolerances during partial panel approaches.
• Localizer tracking — hunting the needle rather than bracketing. Failure to use wind correction early and maintain a constant correction angle on final approach.
• Missed approach execution — missing the correct MAP identification, failing to initiate the missed approach at DA/DH or MDA, or executing the wrong missed approach procedure.
• Weather products — inability to read a TAF, decode a PIREP, or explain what an AIRMET Zulu vs. AIRMET Sierra covers and when each is issued.
• IFR currency — candidates who cannot explain the currency requirements of 14 CFR 61.57(c) or who confuse currency with proficiency.
• Holding pattern entries — choosing the wrong entry (direct, teardrop, parallel) for a given arrival heading, or drifting outside protected airspace during an outbound leg with wind.
• Checklist discipline — skipping the approach checklist or GUMPS equivalent under DPE pressure. Checklists are a Skill element, not a courtesy.

How should you study for the checkride?

Effective instrument rating checkride prep follows a deliberate sequence. Random chair-flying and passive reading are the two most common time wasters.

1. 1
   Master 14 CFR Parts 61 and 91 in full. Know every regulation that the ACS references. Read 61.65 (eligibility), 61.57 (currency), 91.167–91.169 (IFR flight, fuel, alternates), 91.173–91.185 (clearances and lost comm), and 91.205 (equipment). These are not optional background reading — DPEs quote them directly.
2. 2
   Read the Instrument Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-15B) cover to cover, at minimum Chapters 1 (Human Factors), 5 (Systems), 7 (Approaches), and 9 (Navigation). This is the primary study document for the oral exam's knowledge elements.
3. 3
   Study the Instrument Procedures Handbook (FAA-H-8083-16B). Pay particular attention to approach plate symbology, missed approach procedures, and circling approach rules.
4. 4
   Work through the ACS task by task. For each task, write out the Knowledge elements in your own words, then identify the Risk elements, then describe what a Satisfactory Skill demonstration looks like. Do this for all 8 Areas.
5. 5
   Practice approach briefings until they are automatic. Pick a random approach plate from the FAA chart supplement and brief it out loud from scratch — field elevation, inbound course, IAF to MAP, minimums by aircraft category, missed approach procedure, alternate frequencies, and comm failure plan.
6. 6
   Fly with a CFII under actual or simulated IFR conditions at least 3 times in the 60 days before the checkride, with emphasis on partial panel, holds, and at least one ILS to minimums.
7. 7
   Run oral exam simulations. Use a structured AI oral examiner or a CFII acting as DPE to practice giving clear, regulation-backed answers under pressure. The first time you defend your alternate planning decisions should not be on checkride day.
8. 8
   Review the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) Chapters 5 (ATC) and 7 (Safety). Lost communications procedures, radar services, and ATIS/ASOS are perennial oral exam topics.

What documents must you bring on checkride day?

The DPE will review your paperwork before the oral begins. Missing any item means the checkride cannot proceed.

• Government-issued photo ID (driver's license, passport, or equivalent).
• Current FAA medical certificate (at least a Third Class or a valid BasicMed authorization under 14 CFR 68).
• Current private pilot certificate.
• Instrument Rating Aeronautical Knowledge Test (written) result, with a passing score within the preceding 24 calendar months.
• CFII endorsement in your logbook certifying you have received the required ground training and are prepared for the practical test (per 14 CFR 61.65(a)(6)).
• Your pilot logbook, with instrument time, cross-country time, and the required training flights documented and signed off by your CFII.
• Completed FAA Form 8710-1 (IACRA application) — your DPE will typically confirm the IACRA submission in advance. Confirm with your DPE whether they want a printed copy.
• Examiner fee — confirm the amount and payment method with your DPE in advance. DPE fees are set by the individual examiner and are not FAA-established.
• All required aircraft documents (AROW: Airworthiness certificate, Registration, Operating limitations/POH, Weight and balance).
• Current approach plates and en route charts (electronic via ForeFlight, Garmin Pilot, or a paper AFD/chart supplement) for the checkride route.

What aircraft and equipment requirements apply?

Your aircraft must be equipped for IFR flight under 14 CFR 91.205(d). The DPE will verify the aircraft's airworthiness and equipment before the flight test.

Beyond the 91.205(d) list, your aircraft must also carry the navigation equipment appropriate for the approaches on the checkride. If the DPE plans an ILS approach, you need a functioning ILS receiver. If the scenario includes a GPS/RNAV approach, your GPS must be IFR-certified and current (database within the preceding 28 days per AC 90-100A, or the manufacturer's current guidance).

Confirm the aircraft's MEL (Minimum Equipment List) or use the KOEL/POH inoperative equipment list to verify that nothing is deferred that would render the aircraft non-IFR-capable. An aircraft with an inoperative autopilot is usually still checkride-legal; an aircraft with an inoperative vacuum system may not be, depending on its certification basis.

What happens if you receive a notice of disapproval?

A Notice of Disapproval (FAA Form 8060-5) means you failed the checkride, either the oral or the flight test, or both. It is not the end — the instrument rating has a defined retest path under 14 CFR 61.49.

What 14 CFR 61.49 requires:

1. You must receive the additional training necessary to correct the deficiencies that resulted in the disapproval.
2. You must obtain an endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided the additional training, certifying that you are proficient to pass the test.
3. You must bring the Notice of Disapproval to your retest — the examiner who administers the retest will require it.

There is no mandatory waiting period. The regulation imposes no calendar-day minimum between failure and retest. If your CFII determines you are ready in 3 days, you can retest in 3 days. In practice, most candidates take 1–2 weeks to receive targeted instruction and work through the deficient areas properly.

Partial retests: If you passed the oral but failed the flight test, you do not repeat the oral. If you passed some flight tasks but failed others, you retest only on the unsatisfactory areas. The Notice of Disapproval will specify exactly which tasks were unsatisfactory.

Retest with a different DPE: You may retest with any authorized DPE, not only the one who failed you. Many candidates choose to retest with their original examiner because that DPE already knows the scenario context. Others prefer a fresh start with a different examiner. Both are acceptable under 14 CFR 61.49.

How does MockDPE fit into your prep?

Reading regulations and studying approach plates builds foundational knowledge. Demonstrating that knowledge under pressure, in a structured examination format, is a separate skill — and it atrophies without practice.

MockDPE is an AI-powered instrument rating oral exam simulator. It runs you through a complete ACS-structured oral scenario: it assigns a departure airport, aircraft, and weather conditions, then examines you across all 8 Areas of Operation the way a DPE does — with follow-up questions, scenario injections, and evaluation against specific ACS Knowledge and Risk Management elements. When you answer incorrectly or incompletely, it tells you why, cites the relevant regulation or FAA handbook section, and resumes the examination.

The goal is to make your first experience defending your alternate planning or briefing a partial-panel approach not be your actual checkride. Use MockDPE to close the gap between knowing the material and explaining it clearly under structured DPE pressure.

This article was researched from FAA primary sources (ACS FAA-S-ACS-8C, 14 CFR Parts 61 and 91, Instrument Flying Handbook FAA-H-8083-15B, Advisory Circular AC 61-98D) and citing current regulations — drafted by MockDPE. Last updated: May 2026. If you spot an inaccuracy, email corrections@mockdpe.org.